Zompist Bboard Again

Polish words can end in /t/, like bat 'whip'. I assume that when such a word comes before a word starting with /s/, the sequence /ts/ isn't pronounced exactly the same as the affricate /t͡s/. The /ts/ in that context would presumably be heterosyllabic /t.s/. I don't know whether a tautosyllabic non...

Polish is notable for contrasting affricates and the otherwise equivalent stop+sibilant clusters. For instance, the words ⟨trzy⟩ "three" and ⟨czy⟩ (a question particle) are a minimal pair for /tʂ/ and /t͡ʂ/, respectively. However, this pair of affricate and cluster is typically the one giv...

I think it's worth considering that what we think of as profanity seems to be less defined by being usable as insults, and more by being a set of words that are taboo to utter in certain/most social or discourse contexts. Or are there other ways profanity is typically defined?

Anyway, from what I can remember, if we take Planer and Briggs as guides to pronunciation, the apostrophe is variously either a schwa, a glottal stop, a schwa followed by a glottal stop (after a consonant and before a vowel), or completely ignored (which I suppose you could read as it being similar...

So browsing through the linked data, I came across... ⟨t'dr'duzk b'hazg t't⟩

Anyone have any ideas at all for ⟨t't⟩?

I mean in theory, it seems like mixed-voicing homorganic stop clusters should be possible? Like of course it's not exactly typical , but I don't think it'd be impossible? Like if <gk> were [ɡk], I'd think it should be no less unreasonable than thinking of it like [ɡː] but with the voicing cutting ou...

Just going off the above data, it seems like apostrophes always follow a voiced stop? This, to me, screams implosives.

I mean, if its unordered then perhaps "bag of phonemes" might work?

It would certainly be in line with naive attempts at modeling language, though "bag of words" is definitely more usual when it comes to those...

akam chinjir wrote: ↑Fri Jun 07, 2019 12:05 pm It's not ergative because subjects of intransitive verbs are treated just the same as subjects of transitive verbs (they don't control agreement).

Oh duh ok I was indeed being dense.

Am I being dense or is this just marked-absolutative ergative agreement?

akam chinjir wrote: ↑Thu Jun 06, 2019 9:00 pm Can these be construed as free relatives or something?

I mean that'd stand to reason? But I too know very little about the specifics of the topic.

Right, I think what I was specifically interested in is whether there are languages that have tense-marked attributive adjectives wholly separate from verbs, and if so, how common this is? I guess the answer seems to be... rare, if attested at all? Hmmm... what about languages with TAM-marking on no...

alice wrote: ↑Mon Aug 06, 2018 3:50 am or ordered ("It's naive to assume you can model speech entirely as ???")?

n-grams?

Else... substrings? strings?

akam chinjir wrote: ↑Wed Jun 05, 2019 11:30 pm Do you mean specifically predicative adjectives, or attributive ones as well?

I was actually mostly thinking about attributive adjectives specifically; I probably should have made that clear.

Are there any natural languages that have tense marking on adjectives? I'm mostly thinking about languages where adjectives are a distinct class, because if the are coded in a verb-y manner than I'd expect tense marking wouldn't be unexpected. (Though then again, I can also see stative verbs being r...