Cultural effects of a mixed European-Native American population?

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zompist
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Re: Cultural effects of a mixed European-Native American population?

Post by zompist »

Otto Kretschmer wrote: Thu Dec 16, 2021 6:48 pm Not really :) I am under an impression that the King Philip's War was the last chance for Native Americans to destroy New England as it's demographic advantage was growing every year due to birth rates and immigration from Europe.
That may well be. Still, it was probably already too late. Wikipedia says there were already 65,000 colonists, vs. about 10,000 Native Americans. The latter were very good at disruptive, destructive tactics, and so had the better of the first part of the war, but they can't be said to have come close to winning.

FWIW it's probably significant that the Wampanoag were not only rebuffed but attacked when they sought Mohawk aid.
Torco
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Re: Cultural effects of a mixed European-Native American population?

Post by Torco »

1) Being Catholic doesn't make you love genocide any less. There is really no excuse to still be arguing about this in the year of our lord 2021.
is there not? I didn't realize it's an excuseworthy (i.e. reprehensible) view: is it like an impolite opinion to have? it's not like the idea is that current protestants are evil and pro-genocide and current catholics are good and anti-genocide or anything, but do you think it's not the case in this instance, or that it's impossible in general that religion could in principle affect the the kind of colonialism a country effects?
3) Removing the United States as we know it would have enormous knock-on effects, to the point that by 1700 or so, we cannot be confident that anything, anywhere would play out as it does in our timeline, even when it seemingly has nothing to do with the Americas, so we're nowhere near the point of guessing what sort of glastnost we should expect.
truth!

I don't get why there's such a strong opposition to this observed correlation: some colonizers were more into enslaving, others more into genocide and settling, and it just so happens there was a religious split that kind of fits: this doesn't mean the former did not go genocides, they did plenty of genocides, but there's still a difference in the overall trajectory of the colonial endeavours and in the outcomes: namely a very strong difference in the amount of genetic admixture of the resulting populations explained by differences in the relative rates of genocide/assimilation. this is the data, and I don't think it's controversial, is it? it's not certain that religion was a relevant part of why this difference was the case, but it certainly could be the case. like, geographic reasons are also a possible explanation, but people do things and part of the reason they do things is choices and part of the reason they choose things is how they think, what they value, and so on.
But I still wouldn't see religion as the reason for the difference - the French also settled in North America (Quebec, Acadia), displacing the native population, they just lost their colonies to the British early on.
didn't the french bits of north america have a distinct class of mestizos? also, new france at least during parts of its existence had a policy of encouraging intermarriage with the native population, and had the same inclination as the spaniards to establish jesuit missions to evangelize the natives and so on: these things don't seem to me to have been features of the english process: of course alliances with natives wasn't a thing the british didn't do, and apparently the british also had a period of encouraging indian-white marriages.... yeah, maybe it's not as clear cut... it could be that it's not religion but maybe political ideology that explains the difference, I suppose: portugal and spain treated the indians as subjects because they were in many ways closer to medieval kingdoms than modern capitalist states when they began their colonial process: for example the spanish don't seem to have had equivalents to the east india or hudson bay companies.
In any case, my point is that Argentina looks a lot like the US and Canada. It accepted nearly 7 million European immigrants-- by proportion of population, higher than the US. In 1914 80% of the population was descended from immigrants. (Of course the population is unevenly distributed-- if I'm reading Wikipedia corectly, half the population of Argentina is in Buenos Aires province or the city itself.)
but that's probably true of all latin american countries. 80% of the population being descended from immigrants doesn't mean that they're also not descended from any natives: one has a lot of people one is descended from. the argentinians are 'whiter' than other bits of latin america but they still have a lot of mestizaje.

Also, I'm not "looking for the good europeans that didn't genocide", I feel like that's kind of a strawman, tbh.... I'm simply pointing out that look, the guys who did slightly less genocide and who seem to have mixed up more with the natives both at the time seem like they had a policy of assimilating the mestizos into their economic and social system and also were of a different religion, maybe those two observations are related. as I'm realizing now there's other differences, such as the spanish process being less capitalist.
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Re: Cultural effects of a mixed European-Native American population?

Post by zompist »

Torco wrote: Sat Dec 18, 2021 9:54 am
I don't get why there's such a strong opposition to this observed correlation: some colonizers were more into enslaving, others more into genocide and settling, and it just so happens there was a religious split that kind of fits: this doesn't mean the former did not go genocides, they did plenty of genocides, but there's still a difference in the overall trajectory of the colonial endeavours and in the outcomes: namely a very strong difference in the amount of genetic admixture of the resulting populations explained by differences in the relative rates of genocide/assimilation. this is the data, and I don't think it's controversial, is it? it's not certain that religion was a relevant part of why this difference was the case, but it certainly could be the case. like, geographic reasons are also a possible explanation, but people do things and part of the reason they do things is choices and part of the reason they choose things is how they think, what they value, and so on.
It's not that a religious explanation is a priori impossible; it's just that it doesn't hold up.

A relatively minor point is that there's no real explanatory force to the idea. How's it supposed to work? The Pope says "do genocides, but not quite as much?" Neither the Catholic church nor Protestantism are monoliths, and it's quite debatable how much control they have over actual settlers. And I've heard it argued that the Crusader mentality strong in 1500s Catholicism led directly to slavery and the conquistadores, which doesn't say much for Catholic values. (If you've been fighting the Moors for 700 years on religious grounds, it's easy to see any new people you meet as Moors.)

Next, I'm not convinced that "Catholics = less genocides" correlation really exists. I've already mentioned two big exceptions: Argentina and the Caribbean. Argentina looks to me a lot like the US; where we had Manifest Destiny, they had the Conquest of the Desert. If anything the Argentines are more determined to keep glorifying the massacres.

FWIW, the US and Canada are far from uniformly Protestant-- about 1/3 of US Christians are Catholics, and almost 2/3 of Canadian Christians. So far as I know, Anglophone (or Francophone) Catholics are not known for treating Native Americans any better than Protestants.

And on the other hand, other (geographic and economic) explanations seem to work better. The biggest is that in Peru and Mexico, the Spanish encountered existing kingdoms with large populations. This is a very different situation, and the path of least resistance was to take over those kingdoms, whereas in the US, Canada-- and Argentina-- it was easier to just push the Natives out. Note that where the British (and the equally Protestant Dutch) encountered large populous kingdoms elsewhere in the world (e.g. India, Indonesia), they took the "Spanish" path and just took them over. The climate thing is also important: the best safeguard against becoming a settler state is not having a Europe-like climate.

It is true that the British encouraged settlement more than most colonial powers. But this varied enormously by time and place. As I noted, Argentina had a higher rate of immigration than the US during the same period. Plus, note that there was still plenty of emigration from Spain to Latin America!
Torco
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Re: Cultural effects of a mixed European-Native American population?

Post by Torco »

A relatively minor point is that there's no real explanatory force to the idea. How's it supposed to work?
well, for example it could be the case that protestantism made it so there was more religious refugees, which in turn want to go to the new world simply to be able to practice their religion in peace. or that catholicism is explicitly about how 'we're the religion of the entire world' whereas protestant denominations are more about 'we're the only ones who are elect', and one of those is more compatible with 'let's make these savages into good christians'.

the counterexample of argentina doesn't work: not only is immigration not really that relevant, the argentinians are extremely mestizo, both in terms of europeans mixing with indians, europeans mixing with africans, indians with africans, and different kinds of indians and europeans too! some argentinians have done genetic studies that yield that only about 36% of them don't have significant amerindian admixture, using haplogroups and other markers. I don't think you guys had mestizaje up there in the north the way we did down here in the south: european and native populations lived alongside each other and became mixed much more down here than they did up there, which is tbh what I mean by 'less genocidal and more assimilatory' when I talk about the spaniards. if the post-colonial people are all descended from natives, then the natives weren't that thoroughly exterminated. the caribbean counterexample does work, though, as does the case of the dutch, and the east indies.

The spanish could and did coopt local leaderships, caciques and so on in the places where there weren't big empires: a few districts of Santiago are literally named after the cacique that ruled the area by the time pedro de valdiva arrived. if you can take over a big empire, you can take over a small hamlet: you just inform them you're the new cacique: this was done by the spaniards not just unto the nahuas of mexico, but against their enemies too! the thing is this doesn't seem to have happened so much in the north, and I don't buy that they couldn't. Of course the spaniards did emigrate to the kingdoms of the indies, and did so in the expectation that they'd be memebers of a superior social class simply for being spaniards, but what they didn't was do so in the expectation that they'd displace the local populations: rather, they intended to rule them (and maybe find themselves a pretty little local woman, which, I mean, yeah, mestizaje)
Ares Land
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Re: Cultural effects of a mixed European-Native American population?

Post by Ares Land »

It seems to me many priests and monks did try to be a positive force in Mexico.
A number of them did connect to the natives as people; they did condemn the worst abuses. They were pretty much powerless to stop it.
My own impression was that a lot of the damage was done by comparatively few people. It all comes down to the conquistadores being sociopaths to a man, and they weren't that many. In ten to twenty years they had done irreparable damage.

I should add that the missonaries' relative humaneness was conditional on the natives jettisoning all of their culture. (They did not just condemn human sacrifice: everything, down to the calendar was the devil's work.)

Effective control on the settlers is kind of the key; the Pope couldn't a thing about what happened in the Americas. For that matter, neither did the Spanish Kings. (Cortés policy was that what Charles V didn't know wouldn't bother him.)

I wouldn't rule out things going way, way worse if the religious factor had been different though!

I think the French were indeed somehow friendlier towards the natives. That's best explained by demography and politics. The French colonies had tiny populations; they mostly focused on the beaver trade at first, and they needed allies against the Brits.
As far as I know, the First Nations in Québec are just as much of an underclass as they are in the rest of North America.

(There are the Métis, true, but again, demographics: the early French populations were tiny and predominantly male.)

But I'm not leaving Protestantism outside of the equation. Assuming for some reason the Reformation never occured, and England and Scotland had no annoying local religious minorities to deal with... Maybe they would have gone more for trade than for settlement, with altogether different results?


(I got an alternate history with a still-extant Roman empire on the backburner... Now I wonder how they would have done :))
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Re: Cultural effects of a mixed European-Native American population?

Post by zompist »

Torco wrote: Tue Dec 21, 2021 10:53 am
A relatively minor point is that there's no real explanatory force to the idea. How's it supposed to work?
well, for example it could be the case that protestantism made it so there was more religious refugees, which in turn want to go to the new world simply to be able to practice their religion in peace. or that catholicism is explicitly about how 'we're the religion of the entire world' whereas protestant denominations are more about 'we're the only ones who are elect', and one of those is more compatible with 'let's make these savages into good christians'.
Except, Protestants were just as eager to convert Native Americans. Note that converted Natives allied with the settlers in King Philip's War. The majority of US Native Americans are still Christians.
the counterexample of argentina doesn't work: not only is immigration not really that relevant,
Um what? Immigration doubled the size of the country; how does that simply not count for you?

Also, Argentina is kind of famously divided into "greater Buenos Aires" (i.e. the city and province) and "everything else". The former area is much more European-- one of the jokes in Argentine comics is that everyone is Italian.
I don't think you guys had mestizaje up there in the north the way we did down here in the south: european and native populations lived alongside each other and became mixed much more down here than they did up there, which is tbh what I mean by 'less genocidal and more assimilatory' when I talk about the spaniards.
I agree there was more mixing in Latin America, though again I think it's more a matter of population density than culture. In the 1670s, the colonists outnumbered the Natives six to one-- more so after the disastrous war. And immigration later swamped the English population-- there's far more German and Irish ancestry in US residents than English.

So far as I know there was a fair amount of mixing early on, when colonies were tiny. This is similar to how the English behaved in India in the 1700s. When there was a much larger English population in India, there was also far less intermarriage-- and far more bigotry. (Maybe this is related to Orwell's belief that the English were way more xenophobic than other European nations...)

I can't say much about Chile, but Peru is far from a benign melting pot of all the races. The majority is mestizo, and looks down on the "indios". A lot of Quechua folklore is about how oppressive Spanish culture was and is to them.
The spanish could and did coopt local leaderships, caciques and so on in the places where there weren't big empires: a few districts of Santiago are literally named after the cacique that ruled the area by the time pedro de valdiva arrived. if you can take over a big empire, you can take over a small hamlet: you just inform them you're the new cacique
I wouldn't say that's a more enlightened policy! The British thing was to recognize native leaders and sign treaties with them. And later break them, of course.

Ares Land's point is good: that kings and popes had little influence on what settlers actually did. The British government preferred to limit settlement to keep peace with the Natives-- which increased tensions with the colonials, who wanted to expand.
Torco
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Re: Cultural effects of a mixed European-Native American population?

Post by Torco »

Like, I kind of yield, or at least change my position from belief to "it makes sense but it's kinda sussy" regarding the thing about catholics and protestants, the more this thread goes on the more I think about it and there's a few other equally correlated variables, but the base observation of 'omg there's so much more mixing in latin america compared to north" is basically sound, and a thing that probably has cultural causes.
Except, Protestants were just as eager to convert Native Americans. Note that converted Natives allied with the settlers in King Philip's War. The majority of US Native Americans are still Christians.
oh, are they? hmmm fair enough, maybe it wasn't religion.
Um what? Immigration doubled the size of the country; how does that simply not count for you?
cause the question is something like "are catholic/protestant colonizers more into assimilating or removing the natives they encounter" and both assimilation and removal are compatible with high immigration. I know argentinians identify a lot with their italian heritage, of which they have a lot, but if you also have a lot ascendents from natives then your country was likely the result of mestizaje and not replacement. Buenos aires is, again, somewhat whiter, but noticeably less euro than, say, Madrid. because, as you point out
I agree there was more mixing in Latin America
and that's the key thing, there was more mixing (a lot more of it) throughout the entirety of latin america: the bits with and without tropical climate, the bits with and without empires, and (save the sad case of tierra del fuego) the bits with high and low population density. sure, some bits are somewhat less mixed than others for latin american standards, but compared to most of north america it's all relatively high.
I can't say much about Chile, but Peru is far from a benign melting pot of all the races.
Oh, totally! don't get me wrong I'm not saying spain was *better* than england morally and therefore less given to genocide, i'm merely saying that they were happened to prefer enslaving the natives, which is actually a common practice amongst other cultures. taking prisoners may have a big upfront investment, but it's still a pretty good strategy compared to simply killing them. the spaniards were every bit as much racial supremacists as the contemporary english, I gather: in schools we're taught about the intricate race systems they used to control exactly which social roles could be fulfilled by whom: if you were criollo you were second class, but if you were mestizo third, and god forbid you happen to be mulato, or zambo: better to be, say, a tercerón (only one third black, and therefore formally, legally better than being a galfarro, which is 3/4th black). the encomiendas which were formally supposed to be these religious missions to civilize and christianize the indigenous subjects of the crown (for this is indeed what their legal status was in colonial times) were, instead, basically work camps: while spanish colonization did not in fact genocide the peoples entire, they did destroy entire ethnolinguistic groups as such: the kids being taken into slavery, or born into it, and then escaping just to form new tribes or villages in the jungles or mountains, away from the colonial powers, and often alongside escaped slaves from africa or somewhere else in the region entirely are extremely common stories for the peoples of latin america in general, in peru, bolivia, chile, ecuador, venezuela, colombia and the rest of it. but that doesn't make them less genocidal, relatively speaking.
I wouldn't say that's a more enlightened policy! The British thing was to recognize native leaders and sign treaties with them. And later break them, of course.
Oh my god, of course not. the only reason why I may come across as pro-Spanish here is that, honestly, the early republican governments in Latin America weren't a lot better: for reference, there are genocides going on in the amazonia to this day, though thankfully a lot fewer. But no, no the spanish colonizers weren't more enlightened or nicer thanks to being blessed by the fortune of being born under the aegis of the holy see. they were apparently, instead, simply less genocidal as a matter of cultural inclination, for whatever reason.

The reason I suspect cultural inclination is that geography don't add up, the two continents are too diverse for the split to be that black-and-white. you'd expect some exception bigger than argentina (which is 40% mestizo anyway, according to their own censuses). sure, argentina is less mixed than peru, but we're talking 40 vs. 50 vs 90 percent. by contrast, wiki says anywhere from 3 to 10 percent for the us, and 1 or 2 for canadians: this difference is stark. same with density: there was high and low density areas in both the north and south, but behold, all of post-iberian america is super mixed -including mexico in the north, and the whole of central america too- whereas all of anglo-america is... well... not that mixed. you have some survivors of the colonial genocide, as do we, but what you don't have, and all of latin america does have, is this vast chunk of the population being very obviously descended from both colonizers and colonized.
Ares Land's point is good: that kings and popes had little influence on what settlers actually did.
totally. interestingly, the crown in many occasions went into a strongly bartolomé de las casas kind of mood, and tried to control the excess of colonial authorities and strongment, often to little avail. slavery for example was an on-and-off thing. in chile, for example, enslaving mapuches was illegal, then legal for a while after the arauco war, but then it was outlawed in order to try and make peace with them), then a significant grey market i.e. the slave trade was illegal but slaves were slaves, to the point that some queen really tried to end it, then the republic decreed everyone who was born was born free: the latifundios were not that far off from slavery, but I really should read up on the particulars of that.
Travis B.
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Re: Cultural effects of a mixed European-Native American population?

Post by Travis B. »

zompist wrote: Tue Dec 21, 2021 5:30 pm And immigration later swamped the English population-- there's far more German and Irish ancestry in US residents than English.
Apparently this is questionable, in that English immigrants came earlier, so as a result their descendants identify less as English than as having later ancestry, and many of these people, especially in some parts of the US such as the Deep South and Appalachia, identify as having American ancestry instead.
Yaaludinuya siima d'at yiseka ha wohadetafa gaare.
Ennadinut'a gaare d'ate ha eetatadi siiman.
T'awraa t'awraa t'awraa t'awraa t'awraa t'awraa t'awraa.
zompist
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Re: Cultural effects of a mixed European-Native American population?

Post by zompist »

Travis B. wrote: Wed Dec 22, 2021 2:14 pm
zompist wrote: Tue Dec 21, 2021 5:30 pm And immigration later swamped the English population-- there's far more German and Irish ancestry in US residents than English.
Apparently this is questionable, in that English immigrants came earlier, so as a result their descendants identify less as English than as having later ancestry, and many of these people, especially in some parts of the US such as the Deep South and Appalachia, identify as having American ancestry instead.
Good point, though from Wikipedia's table, even if everyone who identified as "American" were counted as English, they'd still be outnumbered by German and Irish.

I suspect it works the other way too-- people have a tendency to forget most of their ancestors, often concentrating just on the ones that bear their names.
Travis B.
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Re: Cultural effects of a mixed European-Native American population?

Post by Travis B. »

zompist wrote: Wed Dec 22, 2021 3:32 pm I suspect it works the other way too-- people have a tendency to forget most of their ancestors, often concentrating just on the ones that bear their names.
This is kind of like my dad's family, where my dad had always believed he was of German descent (as implied by his last name), until my parents got the genealogy bug and he dug back into his family's history, and it turns out he has Slavic ancestry as well.
Yaaludinuya siima d'at yiseka ha wohadetafa gaare.
Ennadinut'a gaare d'ate ha eetatadi siiman.
T'awraa t'awraa t'awraa t'awraa t'awraa t'awraa t'awraa.
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