I meant what I wrote. In writing, I would expect to see the distinction made by placing metheg under the first consonant of malᵉḵê, but no metheg under the first consonant of malḵê. Possibly I am expecting too much - דִּבְרֵ֥י diḇᵉrê doesn't have a metheg at Amos 8:11.Ser wrote: ↑Sat Mar 14, 2020 6:05 pmI don't understand what you mean here. Did you mean to write māleḵê with qamaṣ at the end of that sentence? How would maleḵê be distinguished from malḵê?As for Biblical Aramaic malḵîn, it might be relevant that the Hebrew construct plural of méleḵ is malḵê - there seems to be no sound evidence of it being malᵉḵê.
Biblical Hebrew (and Semitic) questions
Re: Biblical Hebrew (and Semitic) questions
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Re: Biblical Hebrew (and Semitic) questions
This is a very basic question... in Genesis 1 we have
וַיֹּאמֶר אֱלֹהִים, יְהִי אוֹר – וַֽיְהִי אְוֹר.
My question is, where does יְהִי yəhī come from? Conjugation tables like this one have no such form; they have the 3sm prefixing form יִהְיֶה yihye instead.
(This page has nice glosses, but it glosses the 1st occurence of יְהִי as jussive, the second as imperfective!)
וַיֹּאמֶר אֱלֹהִים, יְהִי אוֹר – וַֽיְהִי אְוֹר.
My question is, where does יְהִי yəhī come from? Conjugation tables like this one have no such form; they have the 3sm prefixing form יִהְיֶה yihye instead.
(This page has nice glosses, but it glosses the 1st occurence of יְהִי as jussive, the second as imperfective!)
Re: Biblical Hebrew (and Semitic) questions
According to A Grammar for Biblical Hebrew, by Barrick and Busenitz (p127):zompist wrote: ↑Fri Apr 10, 2020 6:09 pm This is a very basic question... in Genesis 1 we have
וַיֹּאמֶר אֱלֹהִים, יְהִי אוֹר – וַֽיְהִי אְוֹר.
My question is, where does יְהִי yəhī come from? Conjugation tables like this one have no such form; they have the 3sm prefixing form יִהְיֶה yihye instead.
(This page has nice glosses, but it glosses the 1st occurence of יְהִי as jussive, the second as imperfective!)
I’m not too sure how helpful this is though — I’m really bad at Hebrew.The perfect verb הָיָה and its imperfect form יִהְיֶה frequently occur in biblical Hebrew with the waw (וְהָיָה and וַיְהִי, respectively) … Occasionally the strong dagesh (forte) is omitted from the more commonly used forms for euphonic reasons. יְהִי is a shortened form of יִהְיֶה. The waw-consecutive, when attached to the imperfect, prefers the shortened form of the imperfect whenever one exists.
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Re: Biblical Hebrew (and Semitic) questions
The jussive (2 & 3 person) is like the form seen in the waw-consecutive, e.g. apocopated for lamedh he verbs. The vocalisation is at least semi-regular for a segholate, though 'lamedh he' (they actually end in yodh!) segholates seem a bit of a mess.bradrn wrote: ↑Fri Apr 10, 2020 8:50 pm According to A Grammar for Biblical Hebrew, by Barrick and Busenitz (p127):
I’m not too sure how helpful this is though — I’m really bad at Hebrew.The perfect verb הָיָה and its imperfect form יִהְיֶה frequently occur in biblical Hebrew with the waw (וְהָיָה and וַיְהִי, respectively) … Occasionally the strong dagesh (forte) is omitted from the more commonly used forms for euphonic reasons. יְהִי is a shortened form of יִהְיֶה. The waw-consecutive, when attached to the imperfect, prefers the shortened form of the imperfect whenever one exists.
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Re: Biblical Hebrew (and Semitic) questions
OK, thanks! Does יְהִי survive in modern Hebrew? My understanding is that the converted (waw-) forms and the jussive both mostly disappeared after Biblical Hebrew. And that would explain why conjugation tables omit it.