Syntax random

Natural languages and linguistics
bradrn
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Re: Syntax random

Post by bradrn »

zompist wrote: Thu Jan 23, 2025 10:16 pm Unless it's not a time clause but an appositive? e.g. "something most Australians are just getting on with, [namely] Australia Day"?
Yeah, that would make more sense, actually.
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evmdbm
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Re: Syntax random

Post by evmdbm »

Trying this here so I can get my head round it (at Bradrn's suggestion). It relates to the distinction between object control and causatives. I take "I ordered him to do it" to be object control rather than raising-to-object, but tell me if that's wrong. Every time I think about the distinction I doubt myself that I've really understood it, because I understood "I expected him to do it" to be raising-to-object despite English using the same infinitival construction.

I don't think "I made or caused him to do it." is object control (or is it?). The semantic difference is clear I can order him all I like, but he might decide to ignore me, but if I made him to do it he definitely did it.

Put pithily (and possibly unclearly) I'm trying to work out if there is a syntactic difference between the two sentences despite English (at least) using the same infinitival construction or just a semantic difference. Are there examples where languages treat object control and causatives differently in syntactic terms? I'm conscious some have a morphological causative.
zompist
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Re: Syntax random

Post by zompist »

evmdbm wrote: Wed Feb 26, 2025 5:34 pm Trying this here so I can get my head round it (at Bradrn's suggestion). It relates to the distinction between object control and causatives. I take "I ordered him to do it" to be object control rather than raising-to-object, but tell me if that's wrong. Every time I think about the distinction I doubt myself that I've really understood it, because I understood "I expected him to do it" to be raising-to-object despite English using the same infinitival construction.

I don't think "I made or caused him to do it." is object control (or is it?). The semantic difference is clear I can order him all I like, but he might decide to ignore me, but if I made him to do it he definitely did it.
My understanding (which may be wrong, I'm not up to date on Chomskyan syntax) is that the telltale for Subject and Object Control is that the main clause works without the subclause, and for Raising it does not. Compare:

I persuaded Annie to leave. I persuaded Annie. (Control)
Annie wants him to leave. *Annie wants him. (Raising)
That Annie will leave is likely. Annie is likely to leave. *Annie is likely. (Raising)

To be clear, "Annie wants him" is a valid sentence, but it means something quite different; it can't report or summarize the same situation as "Annie wants him to leave."

By this rule, "I expected him to do it" is Raising, since "I expected him" is either wrong or means something else. Similarly "I caused him" doesn't work, so "I caused him to do it" is Raising.

Personally I find "I ordered him" weird but it's hard to rule out entirely. Semantically it could work, as evidenced by the fact that we can say "I gave him an order." (And it can work if "he" is the direct object, e.g. I ordered him from the escort selection menu.) But it sounds weird enough to me that I'm comfortable calling it Raising.
evmdbm
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Re: Syntax random

Post by evmdbm »

zompist wrote: Wed Feb 26, 2025 5:59 pm By this rule, "I expected him to do it" is Raising, since "I expected him" is either wrong or means something else. Similarly "I caused him" doesn't work, so "I caused him to do it" is Raising.

Personally I find "I ordered him" weird but it's hard to rule out entirely. Semantically it could work, as evidenced by the fact that we can say "I gave him an order." (And it can work if "he" is the direct object, e.g. I ordered him from the escort selection menu.) But it sounds weird enough to me that I'm comfortable calling it Raising.
By the same token therefore "I made him" is a valid sentence (maybe I am a god...) but obviously doesn't report the same thing as "I made him do it". "I caused him" takes some effort to make sense of, but certainly doesn't report the same thing as "I caused him to do it." I suspect if you had to make sense of it you'd think it meant I created him. So causatives are object raising. I think that works for me (although it's not what I said in my Vedreki grammar). Revisions...
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