Re: The 'Is this attested?' Thread
Posted: Mon Nov 12, 2018 1:26 am
Is the T-V distinction only a European thing? An areal feature? Or are there languages outside of Europe that use the 2nd person plural pronoun as a formal singular?
It seems like Tagalog is heavily influenced from Spanish, though.bbbosborne wrote: ↑Mon Nov 12, 2018 1:37 am from a quick google search and look at wikipedia, it seems tagalog definitely has it.
Sounds like former morphology — maybe -s was also a class marker of some sort that got fossilized behind the productive class markers in some cases. I don't know if you can find "thematic consonants" like this in nominal inflection elsewhere, but they appear in verbal inflection in e.g. Ket, Burushaski and Athabaskan.renihilater wrote: ↑Fri Nov 09, 2018 10:39 am Nouns in my current proto-language inflect for class and number, quite a lot of classes as in Bantu languages. I also quite like the prefixal shape of them but I had an idea that the root word that gets inflected has sort of "slots" for lack of a better term, where placement of the class/number marker dictates whether it is singular or plural.
Ex.) bas /bɑs̱/ "person, thing, entity, stuff, whatchamacallit etc."
Singular
C1: Sentients : a- : abas "person, individual"
C2: Dang. Sent. : ge- : gebas "criminal, bad person, enemy"
C3: Beasts : ki- : kibas "beast"
C4: Animals : i- : ibas "animal"
Plural
C1: Sentients : <(h)a> : bās "people"
C2: Dang. Sent. : <ge> : bages "criminals, bad people, enemies"
C3: Beasts: <ki> : bakis "beasts"
C4: Animals: <(h)i> : bais "animals"
Michif nominals (mostly of French origin) have two genders assigned to them, one French (m/f, based on etymology), the other Cree (an/in, based on the gender of the Cree traduction of the word); the former triggers agreement on preposed adjectives and articles, the latter triggers agreement on demonstratives and verbs. But the two systems never surfaces both on the same word.
Check out chapter 2 of Classifiers by Aikhenvald. TL; DR: yes.
Rotuman, not Rotokas.Zju wrote: ↑Wed Nov 14, 2018 12:43 pm What is the most extreme case of regularly ocurring metathesis documented? I know that some language (Rotokas?) has a synchronic VC → CV / _# in some of its morphology and that Proto-Slavic underwent {e o}R > R{ē ō} / C., but these are relatively tame. Is there something regular to the likes of, say, wV(C)bV → bV(C)wV?
A draft grammar of Sint wrote: The behaviour of the two modal classes differs under negation. Firstly, the complement clause can be negated, in which case the mood of the complement is the same as in the positive polarity examples above:
lees isınaal
lees is-n-naa-l
it.must.be NEG-1EXC-go-OPT
`I musn't go'
It is also possible, though, to raise the negation to the matrix clause. Epistemic modals still take the potential in this case, but the mood of deontic modal complements is more complex. They can take either the optative or potential with a difference in meaning. The choice alters the scope of negation: with an optative complement negation has scope over the modal, whereas with a potential complement the modal has scope over the negation. Compare the following:
vilees nınaal
vi-lees n-naa-l
NEG-must.be 1EXC-go-OPT
`I don't have to go'
vilees nınaaje
vi-lees n-naa-e
NEG-must.be 1EXC-go-POT
`I musn't go'
vimalın nınaaje
vi-malın n-naa-e
NEG-might.be 1EXC-go-POT
`I might not go'