Kebreni question
Posted: Sun Apr 04, 2021 3:15 am
Am I missing something obvious in the Kebreni grammar?
We know that transitive verbs, when they appear without an object, should be read as passive.
But in a sentence like this: Kulseu, falaute mabu furina; neḣat obucrise there's an implied pronoun: kicked (him).
Are such sentences without an object just inherently ambiguous (in this case, with a possible, albeit unlikely in context, reading of "a man was kicked")? I guess benefactive inflection, among other things, could help to disambiguate.
We know that transitive verbs, when they appear without an object, should be read as passive.
But in a sentence like this: Kulseu, falaute mabu furina; neḣat obucrise there's an implied pronoun: kicked (him).
Are such sentences without an object just inherently ambiguous (in this case, with a possible, albeit unlikely in context, reading of "a man was kicked")? I guess benefactive inflection, among other things, could help to disambiguate.