Conlang Random Thread

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Richard W
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Re: Conlang Random Thread

Post by Richard W »

Travis B. wrote: Fri Apr 17, 2026 9:39 pm
Richard W wrote: Fri Apr 17, 2026 5:01 pm
jal wrote: Fri Apr 17, 2026 4:45 am A passive is typically marked on the verb, while in split ergativity the ergativity is either marked on the noun or the verb (note that there's a difference in marking preference between split-S and fluid-S, where split-S has a tendency to be marked on the verb, while fluid-S has to be marked on the noun).

Now with split-S it's clear it's not a passive, as there's afaik no languages that have constructions we call passives that have these passives mandatory based on the verb. So that leaves fluid-S. To answer the question whether a language uses fluid-S or passives, you'd have to answer the following questions:
1) Is the S of a detransitivized transitive that's the former P of a transitive, marked the same as the S of an intransitive where S is an experiencer (though different from an S that is an agent)? If so, it's ergative.
2) Does the language have a grammatical voice that is used to detransitivize a transitive that marks the former A as S? If so, it's ergative.
3) Does the language have a grammatical voice that is used to detransitivize a transitive that marks the former P as S, which is marked the same as a former A as S? If so, it's a passive.
Is a translation to English available?
I understood jal perfectly well.
Richard W wrote: Fri Apr 17, 2026 5:01 pm Why would a language mark ergativity?
Ergativity simply means that there are situations where S=O is mandatory.
So is the meaning of 'mark' being stretched to include 'exhibit'?

It pains me to say that I am now being confused by the notation. I had understood:

'S' = subject (a purely grammatical aspect))
'O' = object (a purely grammatical aspect)
'A' = agent (semantic, though languages can be idiosyncratic in what is the agent and what is the patient)
'P' = patient (semantic)

I presume the English semantics of 'feel' make 'I' the agent and 'sun' the patient in I felt the sun on my back.

Transitive sentences have (potentially implicit?) subject and object corresponding to agent and patient. Intransitive sentences have merely a subject.

At this point, I fail to understand 'S=O is mandatory'. I presume it does not refer to Latin impersonal verbs with accusative of person, e.g. Me civitatis morum piget taedetque 'I am sick and weary of the morals of the state'. (Latin me is in the accusative case in the sample sentence; morum 'morals' is in the genitive. Does 'S=O' perhaps relate to what can cross-connect between clauses (e.g. by being taken as implicitly duplicated)? Does a typical ergative, transitive sentence have something other than a subject (S) and object (O)?

I assume this level of exposition ignores awkward cases resembling The dog was given a bone by its owner and Has this hall ever been sung in?.
Travis B. wrote: Fri Apr 17, 2026 9:39 pm
Richard W wrote: Fri Apr 17, 2026 5:01 pm I couldn't parse ""mandatory based on the verb".
What jal meant is that in some cases the situation where S=O is mandatory, either based on the identity of the verb, tense or aspect, personhood/animacy/topicality hierarchies, or like.
So for ease of complication, I should read, 'Now with split-S it's clear it's not a passive, as there's afaik no languages that have constructions we call passives where these passives are mandatory based on the verb'. How do Latin deponents and semi-deponents square with this? Is it simply by using the concept of deponency rather than of passiveness? (Note that with these Latin verbs, the agent is in the nominative, and some can have an object in the accusative case. I am not sure how sentences with such verbs are passivised.)
Travis B. wrote: Fri Apr 17, 2026 9:39 pm
Richard W wrote: Fri Apr 17, 2026 5:01 pm What does detransitivize mean? Does it mean to convert from a sentence with a subject and an object to one with only a subject while referring to the same action? If so, both forming a passive and an anti-passive would count as detransitivizing.
Well, yes ─ detransitivize simply means to take a clause with A and O arguments and leave it as an intransitive clause with only an S argument by either deleting or demoting to oblique one of A or O and making the other S.
Good. I was worried whether I had to worry about verbs that can be transitive or intransitive, like English I am baking in here, which can have the semantics of a passive or of an anti-passive.
Travis B. wrote: Fri Apr 17, 2026 9:39 pm
Richard W wrote: Fri Apr 17, 2026 5:01 pm In (2), what does 'it' refer to? It seems to say that Thai is ergative because of its ถูก and โดน passives. Thai has no case marking related to subject and object.
What jal is describing is an antipassive, which is a classic feature of many languages with ergativity.
Is 'it' the construction or the language?

The Thai issue is that "<agent> <verb> <patient>" passivises in one way to "<patient> ถูก [<agent>] <verb>". It can also passivise to "<patient> <verb>". (If the agent is expressed in the latter, one gets a construction called the 'English passive', because the agent is then preserved the same way as in English.) Object-deleting detransivitisation is done by substituting an unspecific object, as in Chinese. I don't think these are normally though of anti-passives. The noun phrase-marking is done by word order, with ambiguity preserved by topic-fronting.
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Re: Conlang Random Thread

Post by bradrn »

Richard W wrote: Sat Apr 18, 2026 2:18 pm It pains me to say that I am now being confused by the notation. I had understood:

'S' = subject (a purely grammatical aspect))
'O' = object (a purely grammatical aspect)
'A' = agent (semantic, though languages can be idiosyncratic in what is the agent and what is the patient)
'P' = patient (semantic)
The usual notation is S = intransitive subject, A = transitive subject, O = transitive object. All three of these are purely syntactic, not semantic. But normally people don’t use P as well; I have no idea what that’s supposed to mean.
At this point, I fail to understand 'S=O is mandatory'. I presume it does not refer to Latin impersonal verbs with accusative of person, e.g. Me civitatis morum piget taedetque 'I am sick and weary of the morals of the state'. (Latin me is in the accusative case in the sample sentence; morum 'morals' is in the genitive. Does 'S=O' perhaps relate to what can cross-connect between clauses (e.g. by being taken as implicitly duplicated)? Does a typical ergative, transitive sentence have something other than a subject (S) and object (O)?
A typical ergative transitive clause has an A and an O, where the O is marked the same as the sole argument S of an intransitive clause. That’s really all there is to it. Some ergative languages also allow S=O cross-connections (‘pivots’) between clauses: this is the much-vaunted ‘syntactic ergativity’ which is by no means universal amongst languages with this marking.

As for your Latin example, I don’t know Latin so find it hard to comment. But I believe this is an instance of what is generally known as a ‘quirky subject’ construction. I’m not sure how it’s analysed, but generally it seem to be considered a separate phenomenon from ‘true’ ergative marking, insofar as the accusative argument is doesn’t have the expected properties of a transitive or intransitive subject — for instance, it seems that the verbs here certainly aren’t agreeing with it. It’s not the case that you can use the accusative with unambiguously monovalent verbs, as in a true ergative language.
I assume this level of exposition ignores awkward cases resembling The dog was given a bone by its owner and Has this hall ever been sung in?.
Aren’t these just passives? As noted, ergative languages don’t usually have true passives, but for those that do, ‘the dog’ and ‘this hall’ would be perfectly normal S arguments and as such would receive absolutive marking. (But then they’d receive the absolutive anyway, which is why ergative languages generally don’t bother with an explicit passive construction.)
The Thai issue is that "<agent> <verb> <patient>" passivises in one way to "<patient> ถูก [<agent>] <verb>". It can also passivise to "<patient> <verb>". (If the agent is expressed in the latter, one gets a construction called the 'English passive', because the agent is then preserved the same way as in English.) Object-deleting detransivitisation is done by substituting an unspecific object, as in Chinese. I don't think these are normally though of anti-passives. The noun phrase-marking is done by word order, with ambiguity preserved by topic-fronting.
As I vaguely recall, the Thai ‘passive’ has substantial syntactic differences to a true passive, mostly because Thai doesn’t have the need for argument promotion or demotion that justifies passives in accusative languages and antipassives in ergative languages. Unfortunately I’m on my phone in a different country so it’s hard to look up my sources. (Usually I rely on Enfield’s excellent Lao grammar — I know it’s not Thai but they’re pretty close, and IIRC Enfield has a detailed analysis of the corresponding Lao construction.)
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Travis B.
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Re: Conlang Random Thread

Post by Travis B. »

I realized that most perfective and imperfective pairs except for those starting with labials, pharyngeals, /r/, /w/, or /j/ won't merge after all ─ but I am going to keep the new periphrasic past imperfective and 'present perfective' anyways.
Yaaludinuya siima d'at yiseka wohadetafa gaare.
Ennadinut'a gaare d'ate eetatadi siiman.
T'awraa t'awraa t'awraa t'awraa t'awraa t'awraa t'awraa.
Richard W
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Re: Conlang Random Thread

Post by Richard W »

bradrn wrote: Sat Apr 18, 2026 3:08 pm
Richard W wrote: Sat Apr 18, 2026 2:18 pm It pains me to say that I am now being confused by the notation. I had understood:

'S' = subject (a purely grammatical aspect))
'O' = object (a purely grammatical aspect)
'A' = agent (semantic, though languages can be idiosyncratic in what is the agent and what is the patient)
'P' = patient (semantic)
The usual notation is S = intransitive subject, A = transitive subject, O = transitive object. All three of these are purely syntactic, not semantic. But normally people don’t use P as well; I have no idea what that’s supposed to mean.
Thank you. Given what you say, it seems that Jal used 'P' for transitive object. In some sense, 'S' makes sense as an abbreviation for 'sole'.
bradrn wrote: Sat Apr 18, 2026 3:08 pm
I assume this level of exposition ignores awkward cases resembling The dog was given a bone by its owner and Has this hall ever been sung in?.
Aren’t these just passives? As noted, ergative languages don’t usually have true passives, but for those that do, ‘the dog’ and ‘this hall’ would be perfectly normal S arguments and as such would receive absolutive marking. (But then they’d receive the absolutive anyway, which is why ergative languages generally don’t bother with an explicit passive construction.)
In the first one, 'a bone' remains a direct object in the passive sentence. In the second case, 'this hall' is not a direct object in Has anyone ever sung in this hall? and 'sing in' is not a phrasal verb.
bradrn wrote: Sat Apr 18, 2026 3:08 pm Usually I rely on Enfield’s excellent Lao grammar ...
I tend to have reservations because of his belief that all monosyllabic Lao content words fit in the Gedney box. It seems remarkable if true.
Richard W
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Re: Conlang Random Thread

Post by Richard W »

jal wrote: Fri Apr 17, 2026 4:45 am 2) Does the language have a grammatical voice that is used to detransitivize a transitive that marks the former A as S? If so, it's ergative.
I think Classical Sanskrit can delete the patient of a transitive verb expressed using the past participle by switching to a conventional finite verb, namely by use of the imperfect, aorist or perfect tense in the active voice. (In Classical Sanskrit, these old tenses had the same meaning, and could be combined indiscriminately.) The agent will then be in the nominative case. Accordingly, Classical Sanskrit is split ergative!

Mind you, the same logic also makes Classical Latin split ergative!
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Re: Conlang Random Thread

Post by Travis B. »

It turns out that due to my limited number of sound changes, Reháľa Kâp is much more morphologically complex than Rihalle Kaafi even though it lacks case-marking per se. As a result I have to mark dictionary entries and info on morphemes with large amounts of information relevant to allomorphy and factors such as syllable weight in the protolanguage necessary to determine where stress falls and which vowels are long synchronically.
Yaaludinuya siima d'at yiseka wohadetafa gaare.
Ennadinut'a gaare d'ate eetatadi siiman.
T'awraa t'awraa t'awraa t'awraa t'awraa t'awraa t'awraa.
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Imralu
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Re: Conlang Random Thread

Post by Imralu »

bradrn wrote: Sat Apr 18, 2026 3:08 pm
Richard W wrote: Sat Apr 18, 2026 2:18 pm'S' = subject (a purely grammatical aspect))
'O' = object (a purely grammatical aspect)
'A' = agent (semantic, though languages can be idiosyncratic in what is the agent and what is the patient)
'P' = patient (semantic)
The usual notation is S = intransitive subject, A = transitive subject, O = transitive object. All three of these are purely syntactic, not semantic. But normally people don’t use P as well; I have no idea what that’s supposed to mean.
Using P alongside S, A and O is a sign that someone has mixed up the language of morphosyntactic argument roles (used to talk about morphosyntactics, not semantics) with the language of thematic relations (used to talk about semantic roles independent of morphosyntactics in order to then compare how languages handle them morphosyntactically). They're from two different systems.
Richard W wrote: Sat Apr 18, 2026 2:18 pmAt this point, I fail to understand 'S=O is mandatory'.
It just means that the objects of transitive sentences are marked the same way (in the morphosyntactic position, whether case or word order) as the subjects of intransitive sentences.
Richard W wrote: Sat Apr 18, 2026 2:18 pmI presume it does not refer to Latin impersonal verbs with accusative of person, e.g. Me civitatis morum piget taedetque 'I am sick and weary of the morals of the state'. (Latin me is in the accusative case in the sample sentence; morum 'morals' is in the genitive. Does 'S=O' perhaps relate to what can cross-connect between clauses (e.g. by being taken as implicitly duplicated)? Does a typical ergative, transitive sentence have something other than a subject (S) and object (O)?
I don't speak Latin either and you should really gloss that unless you're coming from the era where All learnèd people speak Latin, darling! In any case, I suspect it is something like these German examples:

Code: Select all

Mir    ist              kalt
1S.DAT be.3S.PRES.INDIC cold
"I'm cold."

Mir    ist              übel
1s.DAT be.3s.PRES.INDIC nauseous
"I feel sick."
These are a rare case of German not having an overtly marked subject rather than a dummy subject. The verb ist still agrees with the 3rd person singular dummy subject. The pronoun is in the dative case because some concepts are expressed in German with the EXPERIENCER (a thematic relation) in the dative. (The majority are in the nominative, as in English: Ich sehe 'I see'; ich mag 'I like'; ich höre 'I hear'.) It doesn't really say anything about the morphosyntactic alignment of German, which is quite squarely nominative/accusative.

By the way, the sentences above can have their omitted nominative dummy subjects expressed: Es ist mir kalt. Es ist mir übel. (The latter feels a bit stiff to me.)

In languages that never have dummy subjects (like It's raining. Es regnet.), for example Spanish (Está lloviendo, lit. "Is raining.") (but not ones that express the sentence as something like "Rain falls"), there are frequent examples of sentences without subject or object — in Spanish, verbal agreement indicates an unexpressed 3s subject just as Mir ist kalt does— but in languages without subject-verb agreement, without a dummy subject, the entire concept of a subject can be missing from sentences such as this. This is not a challenge for morphosyntactic alignment tests — unless the whole language somehow never expresses subjects and objects.
Richard W wrote: Sat Apr 18, 2026 2:18 pmI assume this level of exposition ignores awkward cases resembling The dog was given a bone by its owner and Has this hall ever been sung in?.
There's nothing awkward about that at all. The English passive can simply be used in ways that are impossible for a passive in many languages; it can promote not only a direct object but also an indirect object or a prepositional complement to the subject role. One of my little quirks is that I like making passive sentences that most people would call ungrammatical or borderline, like "How dare he be taller than me? I don't like being been taller than!

German can't do anything like that with its passive construction, but it can do impersonal passives, which English can't do. It can passivise intransitive verbs! (These can have a dummy subject es, but it can be dropped if something else is fronted before the finite verb ... and this can even be the past participle.)

Code: Select all

Jetzt   wird     getanzt!
now     becomes  danced(PP)
"Now it's time to dance!"

Gestorben wird    immer.
died(PP)  becomes always
"People are always dying." 
"People will always die." 
(German title for the HBO series "Six Feet Under")

Bei diesen Veranstaltungen wird    immer  getrunken.
at  these  events          becomes always drunk(PP)
"People always drink at these events."
The fact that English and German passive sentences have different bounds regarding what is and isn't possible is also not a challenge for morphosyntactic alignment because both languages do the normal "core passive" thing with their passives: promoting a direct object to a subject. Grammatical labels like "passive", "genitive" or "ergative", when applied cross-linguistically don't always mean the exact same thing. They are just labels and the real world is messier than the neat little boxes we make our words mean. There's generally a core meaning associated with each linguistic word, and when linguists are describing a language, they have to make choices about the best words to describe particular structures within the language, or the language itself as a whole. Saying "X language" has a passive doesn't tell you anything about the boundaries of its use, just that it has a structure that can do all (or most of) the things canonically described as passive. It's the same with ergativity. There's a core meaning of ergativity, but not everything fits it neatly, which is why linguists have come up with finer and finer shades of meaning such as split ergativity, fluid-S and Austronesian alignment etc. and defined tests and boundaries for each of these, and there will always be things that just refuse to fit neatly into one category.

Some of the categories are really sloppy. For example the word "predicate" can be used both for the entire syntactic part of the sentence that is not the subject, but it's sometimes also used more or less as a word for "verb" in the sentencial sense (i.e. excluding objects) or even as a label for a part of speech. Words like "imperfect", as already discussed here, are another example. Look at how the word "aorist" is used in different languages. It's a mess.

It's often a case of simply which analysis you go with: as bradrn mentioned, many Polynesian languages can be regarded as NOM/ACC and others as ERG/ABS and the lines between them are fine and linguists describing the same language can come up with competing analyses; more than half of all transitive sentences in Māori dialogues are passive — which could also be analysed as active in an ERG/ABS structure, but then the fact that the passive is morphologically marked means that regarding the absence of this marking as a marker of the antipassive would be a bit weird. Then there's another part of speech called statives which cannot be marked for the passive, but which always inherently function in an ergative/absolutive way (except with the accusative marker i introducing the agent instead of the e ergative marker used with other verbs.) Māori is generally explained as NOM/ACC and Sāmoan is generally explained as ERG/ABS and my understanding is that, in Sāmoan, the passive suffix on verbs need not always be present.

My point is just that real languages (and conlangs) are under no obligation to fit neatly inside categories defined by words. The linguist's job is to choose the best description of the language and choose words that get close and then explain where the words chosen fail to explain the behaviour of the language. (A less parsimonious analysis will require a lot more explaining and anyone reading it may just go "Why don't you just describe it as XYZ then!?" or "This is so genuinely weird that you should just coin a new word for it!" or "Why did you bother coining a new word for that? It's just X with a few fringe cases of Y!?") If you draw some lines on the ground to represent the abstract definitions of linguistic words and then drop cans of paint on the ground, most languages will have a few splatters that go across lines, or they won't land right in the centre of their category. Some will land pretty squarely across both sides of a line and if that happens enough, new lines may be drawn (new words coined) to explain these languages in the simplest terms. English and German's differing bounds for their passive constructions or the presence of some experiencers in the Dative in German and the accusative in Latin are not huge hurdles to get these languages to fit the label NOM/ACC.
Glossing Abbreviations: COMP = comparative, C = complementiser, ACS / ICS = accessible / inaccessible, GDV = gerundive, SPEC / NSPC = (non-)specific, ᴬ/ₐ = agent, ᴱ/ₑ = entity (person, animal, thing).
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Travis B.
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Re: Conlang Random Thread

Post by Travis B. »

I realized today that I made the morphophonology of Reháľa Kâp rather difficult even though its diachronics are deceptively simple on paper. It's got all kind of difficult-to-synchronically-predict mobile phonemic stress (even though stress was purely allophonic in the protolanguage) and hiding of protolanguage quantity, historically short vowel elision, uvular and pharyngeal coloring, and ambiguous, unpredictable palatalization (where in many cases a single phoneme can reflect both an unpalatalized and a palatalized consonant in the protolanguage) which complicates everything synchronically.
Yaaludinuya siima d'at yiseka wohadetafa gaare.
Ennadinut'a gaare d'ate eetatadi siiman.
T'awraa t'awraa t'awraa t'awraa t'awraa t'awraa t'awraa.
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Re: Conlang Random Thread

Post by Travis B. »

Here is a simple sentence.

[ˈeχɛ ˈlaxtskʰə ˈnɐlbə]
/ˈeχe ˈlaxtsʰkʰə ˈnəlbə/
Éxe lâxjtska nálba.
éxe lâxj=ts=ka n=álba
hoe take.PFV=3.S.M.ANIM=3.S.F.INAN POSS.1S=older_brother
The hoe was taken by my older brother.

This sentence does not really demonstrate the morphological craziness of the language, but rather demonstrates topic-comment constructions and the personhood/animacy/topicality hierarchy. Éxe 'hoe', being the topic, comes before the verb, and nálba 'my older brother', being the comment, comes after the verb, but it is clear that éxe is the object as it is lower on the hierarchy than nálba and the verb is not marked as inverse. This is translated to English using the passive; while Reháľa Kâp has a passive, it is used for detransitivization and constructing passive participles rather than for establishing topic and comment.

Edit: added agreement clitics.
Last edited by Travis B. on Sun Apr 19, 2026 10:27 pm, edited 5 times in total.
Yaaludinuya siima d'at yiseka wohadetafa gaare.
Ennadinut'a gaare d'ate eetatadi siiman.
T'awraa t'awraa t'awraa t'awraa t'awraa t'awraa t'awraa.
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Raphael
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Re: Conlang Random Thread

Post by Raphael »

Travis B. wrote: Sun Apr 19, 2026 12:09 am Here is a simple sentence.

[ˈeχɛ ˈlaχ ˈnɐlbə]
/ˈeχe ˈlaχ ˈnəlbə/
Éxe lâx nálba.
éxe lâx n=álba
hoe take.PFV POSS.1S=older_brother
The hoe was taken by my older brother.
That's impressive.
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Re: Conlang Random Thread

Post by Travis B. »

[ˈnɐd̪ə ˈt̪ʰaʁ maɣuˈtsʰekʰβə ˈd̪art̪ʰ ˈtsʼaːwə ˈzalt̪ʰ]
/ˈnəd̪ə ˈt̪ʰaʁ maɣuˈtsʰekʰβə ˈd̪art̪ʰ ˈtsʼaːwə ˈzalt̪ʰ/
Náda tâg màgjutsékva dârt ts'âawa zâlt.
n=áda tâg mà=ghu=tsé=k=va dârt ts'âaw-a zâlt
POSS.1.S=father PAST.IPFV INST=make.IPFV=3.S.M.ANIM=3.S.F.INAN=3.S.M.INAN sword iron-CONST meteor
My father was making a sword out of meteoric iron.
Last edited by Travis B. on Sun Apr 19, 2026 10:27 pm, edited 3 times in total.
Yaaludinuya siima d'at yiseka wohadetafa gaare.
Ennadinut'a gaare d'ate eetatadi siiman.
T'awraa t'awraa t'awraa t'awraa t'awraa t'awraa t'awraa.
Travis B.
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Re: Conlang Random Thread

Post by Travis B. »

Raphael wrote: Sun Apr 19, 2026 12:23 am
Travis B. wrote: Sun Apr 19, 2026 12:09 am Here is a simple sentence.

[ˈeχɛ ˈlaχ ˈnɐlbə]
/ˈeχe ˈlaχ ˈnəlbə/
Éxe lâx nálba.
éxe lâx n=álba
hoe take.PFV POSS.1S=older_brother
The hoe was taken by my older brother.
That's impressive.
It just goes to show the power or decoupling word order from S versus A versus O and using it instead to express topicality combined with leveraging personhood/animacy/topicality hierarchies. However, I forgot to add agreement clitics for some reason (it's not as succinct with them)!
Yaaludinuya siima d'at yiseka wohadetafa gaare.
Ennadinut'a gaare d'ate eetatadi siiman.
T'awraa t'awraa t'awraa t'awraa t'awraa t'awraa t'awraa.
bradrn
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Re: Conlang Random Thread

Post by bradrn »

Imralu wrote: Sat Apr 18, 2026 9:18 pm
Agreed with everything you say here. This is an excellent overview.
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Lērisama
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Re: Conlang Random Thread

Post by Lērisama »

Richard W wrote: Sat Apr 18, 2026 2:18 pm At this point, I fail to understand 'S=O is mandatory'. I presume it does not refer to Latin impersonal verbs with accusative of person, e.g. Me civitatis morum piget taedetque 'I am sick and weary of the morals of the state'.
I know just enough Latin to be confused by this, so let me have a go to add to Imralu and Bradrn's descriptions.

Firstly, a gloss:
1sg.ACC
cīvitā-tis
state-GEN.sg
mōr-um
moral-GEN.pl
pige-t
pain-3sg
taede-t=que
weary-3sg=and


This does indeed look like an instance of quirky subject like the German examples to me, with the subject¹ in the genitive and the verb being impersonal, with the added complication that the semantic roles of the subject and object are switched between the Latin and the English translation. As Latin never has dummy subjects, this works. I've not come across the ‘accusative of person’ before, but as a general rule the implied analysis of the traditional terms of Latin grammar can be ignored, and their categorisations shouldn't be taken for granted².

¹ Here mōrum. To add to the confusion cīvitātis is being a normal genitive of possession here.
² But they are still tought to Latin students in schools here, and tested in public examinations as the way the grammar is, because of course.
LZ – Lēri Ziwi
PS – Proto Sāzlakuic (ancestor of LZ)
PRk – Proto Rākēwuic
XI – Xú Iạlan
VN – verbal noun
SUP – supine
DIRECT – verbal directional
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jal
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Re: Conlang Random Thread

Post by jal »

Travis B. wrote: Sat Apr 18, 2026 11:46 amThe key thing, though, is that the Romans didn't lose the distinction between S/A and P, they just expressed it different ways rather than relying on grammatical case. (Of course, this took longer than commonly alleged, as the French were still distinguishing a nominative and oblique a thousand years after the death of Julius Caesar.)
Indeed, but they lost free word order. And since many languages go without an explicit perfective/imperfective distinction, a language having it could lose it without too much trouble, imho.


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jal
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Re: Conlang Random Thread

Post by jal »

Richard W wrote: Sat Apr 18, 2026 5:35 pm
bradrn wrote: Sat Apr 18, 2026 3:08 pmThe usual notation is S = intransitive subject, A = transitive subject, O = transitive object. All three of these are purely syntactic, not semantic. But normally people don’t use P as well; I have no idea what that’s supposed to mean.
Thank you. Given what you say, it seems that Jal used 'P' for transitive object. In some sense, 'S' makes sense as an abbreviation for 'sole'.
I did, I like S/A/P better than S/A/O, but I realize S/A/O is more common (though Wikipedia does mention the use of P instead of O as well).


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Travis B.
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Re: Conlang Random Thread

Post by Travis B. »

I always understood 'O' and 'P' in contexts like these to be synonymous myself.
Yaaludinuya siima d'at yiseka wohadetafa gaare.
Ennadinut'a gaare d'ate eetatadi siiman.
T'awraa t'awraa t'awraa t'awraa t'awraa t'awraa t'awraa.
Richard W
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Re: Conlang Random Thread

Post by Richard W »

Lērisama wrote: Sun Apr 19, 2026 5:33 am
Richard W wrote: Sat Apr 18, 2026 2:18 pm At this point, I fail to understand 'S=O is mandatory'. I presume it does not refer to Latin impersonal verbs with accusative of person, e.g. Me civitatis morum piget taedetque 'I am sick and weary of the morals of the state'.
I know just enough Latin to be confused by this, so let me have a go to add to Imralu and Bradrn's descriptions.

Firstly, a gloss:
1sg.ACC
cīvitā-tis
state-GEN.sg
mōr-um
moral-GEN.pl
pige-t
pain-3sg
taede-t=que
weary-3sg=and


This does indeed look like an instance of quirky subject like the German examples to me, with the subject¹ in the genitive and the verb being impersonal, with the added complication that the semantic roles of the subject and object are switched between the Latin and the English translation. As Latin never has dummy subjects, this works. I've not come across the ‘accusative of person’ before, but as a general rule the implied analysis of the traditional terms of Latin grammar can be ignored, and their categorisations shouldn't be taken for granted².

¹ Here mōrum. To add to the confusion cīvitātis is being a normal genitive of possession here.
² But they are still tought to Latin students in schools here, and tested in public examinations as the way the grammar is, because of course.
I chose this example because the usual case for direct objects in Latin is being used for the primary argument, the person affected. I don't see the cause being a primary argument. In this respect, it differs from the German example, which uses an oblique case for the person affected. Some Latin impersonal verbs use the dative for the experiencer, and would have been relevant if I was analysing for ergativity the Latin use of the dative + past participle construction to convey a perfect.
Last edited by Richard W on Sun Apr 19, 2026 9:53 am, edited 1 time in total.
Travis B.
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Re: Conlang Random Thread

Post by Travis B. »

[rɛˈhɐʎə ˈkʰapʰ ˈjɐɲ tsʰɛβˈçɐl ˈkʰapʰ]
/reˈhəʎə ˈkʰapʰ ˈjəɲ tsʰeβˈçəl ˈkʰapʰ/
Reháľa Kâp yáň tsevśál kâp.
re-háľ-a kâp yáň tse=v=śál kâp
NMLZ-speak.PFV-CONST people STAT 3.S.M.ANIM=3.S.M.INAN=speak.STAT people
Reháľa Kâp is spoken by the people.

[ˈkʰapʰ ˈjɐɲ tsʰɛβˈçɐl rɛˈhɐʎə ˈkʰapʰ]
/ˈkʰapʰ ˈjəɲ tsʰeβˈçəl reˈhəʎə ˈkʰapʰ/
Kâp yáň tsevśál Reháľa Kâp.
kâp yáň tse=v=śál re-háľ-a kâp
people STAT 3.S.M.ANIM=3.S.M.INAN=speak.STAT NMLZ-speak.PFV-CONST people
The people speak Reháľa Kâp.
Last edited by Travis B. on Sun Apr 19, 2026 12:46 pm, edited 2 times in total.
Yaaludinuya siima d'at yiseka wohadetafa gaare.
Ennadinut'a gaare d'ate eetatadi siiman.
T'awraa t'awraa t'awraa t'awraa t'awraa t'awraa t'awraa.
Lērisama
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Re: Conlang Random Thread

Post by Lērisama »

Richard W wrote: Sun Apr 19, 2026 9:22 am I chose this example because the usual case for direct objects in Latin is being used for the primary argument, the person affected. I don't see the cause being a primary argument. In this respect, it differs from the German example, which uses an oblique case for the person affected. Some Latin impersonal verbs use the dative for the experiencer, and would have been relevant if I was analysing for ergativity the Latin use of the dative + past participle construction to convey a perfect.
If you are really convinced that the cause isn't a “primary argument”¹, then it's a quirky subject in the accusative⁵, and again just like the German examples, but with an extra oblique argument in the genitive.

¹ I wouldn't be so sure. The genitive without a possesseum feels quite like a core argument to me, but this is a vague feeling from my² understanding of Latin, and you get similar constructions with the cause as a prototypical subject in the nominative and agreeing with the verb in clauses like sī dīs placet³⁴
² Obviously non-native
³ ‘Gods willing,’ the subject being the clause it is attached to
if
dīs
god.DAT.pl
place-t
please-3sg

⁵ Which can also be an oblique case in Latin, so I don't get your argument against this
LZ – Lēri Ziwi
PS – Proto Sāzlakuic (ancestor of LZ)
PRk – Proto Rākēwuic
XI – Xú Iạlan
VN – verbal noun
SUP – supine
DIRECT – verbal directional
My language stuff
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