Why is "Las Meninas" famous ?

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jcb
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Why is "Las Meninas" famous ?

Post by jcb »

When I took an art class in university, my class was shown this painting ( https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/File:Las_ ... _Earth.jpg ) and was told that it was famous, but I don't understand why.

Wikipedia gives the following description:
The painting is believed by F. J. Sánchez Cantón to depict a room in the Royal Alcazar of Madrid during the reign of King Philip IV of Spain, and presents several figures, most identifiable from the Spanish court, captured in a particular moment as if in a snapshot. Some of the figures look out of the canvas towards the viewer, while others interact among themselves. The five-year-old Infanta Margaret Theresa is surrounded by her entourage of maids of honour, chaperone, bodyguard, two dwarfs and a dog. Just behind them, Velázquez portrays himself working at a large canvas. Velázquez looks outwards, beyond the pictorial space to where a viewer of the painting would stand. In the background there is a mirror that reflects the upper bodies of the king and queen. They appear to be placed outside the picture space in a position similar to that of the viewer, although some scholars have speculated that their image is a reflection from the painting Velázquez is shown working on.
Imo, none of this is interesting or elucidating. A famous person ? Okay. Their servants ? So what ? Their dog ? Woop-dee-doo. A cameo by the artist himself ? How cheeky. The art itself ? Meh.

The best explanation that I can come up with is that it shows a very important person (a spanish princess) of the time (1656). However, it is no longer 1656, but 2023. The spanish empire no longer exists, nor is Spain even a great power, nor does its monarchy even personally lead the country. Thus, to me, the painting seems like a ruined sphinx: a relic of an empire that no longer exists. But note that this is /not/ what painting itself is trying to communicate ! The painting itself did not anticipate Spain's loss of grandeur ! It's not trying to communicate what "Bonaparte Before the Sphinx" ( https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/File:Bona ... 3%B4me.jpg ) communicates, but only unintentionally does so now (to me, at least).

If Spain (led by its monarchy) was still a world power, I could perhaps interpret and appreciate the painting similar to the way one interprets this photograph of senior American army commanders of WW2 : https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/File:Amer ... _1945.JPEG , but that seems inappropriate in 2023.

Is my analysis correct ? Am I missing something obvious ? Am I right in thinking that art connoisseurs are just group-thinking sheep that'll fawn over a painting the same way that paparazzi fawn over Paris Hilton ? (For those that don't know, Paris Hilton is a talentless unaccomplished American woman who nevertheless has immense inherited wealth and media attention, and has been called "famous for being famous".)
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Re: Why is "Las Meninas" famous ?

Post by zompist »

jcb wrote: Thu Mar 02, 2023 10:55 pm Imo, none of this is interesting or elucidating. A famous person ? Okay. Their servants ? So what ? Their dog ? Woop-dee-doo. A cameo by the artist himself ? How cheeky. The art itself ? Meh.

The best explanation that I can come up with is that it shows a very important person (a spanish princess) of the time (1656).
Try this explanation. In short, no, it's not famous because it shows a princess.
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Raphael
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Re: Why is "Las Meninas" famous ?

Post by Raphael »

I'm not sure how famous the painting really is, given that this thread is the first time I hear of it.

Your question reminds me a bit of the Straight Dope's discussion of why the Mona Lisa is famous:

https://www.straightdope.com/21342884/w ... -so-famous

Judging from the link zompist posted, in both cases, the answer seems to be that the painting originally did something that hadn't been done before, at least in that form - and then, a while later, when the original reason for why it was famous started to be forgotten, it became "famous for being famous".

As for the unimpressive subject matter, well, keep in mind that apparently some of the most famous and celebrated paintings of the 17th and 18th centuries show bowls of fruit. I guess in their own times, they might have started out as a kind of early "food porn", but later, they, too, ended up being famous for being famous.
jcb wrote: Thu Mar 02, 2023 10:55 pm
The best explanation that I can come up with is that it shows a very important person (a spanish princess) of the time (1656). However, it is no longer 1656, but 2023. The spanish empire no longer exists, nor is Spain even a great power, nor does its monarchy even personally lead the country.
I'd say the flaw in your argument is that it assumes that if something becomes famous for a specific reason, and then that reason disappears, the thing itself should stop being famous. Or, more generally, if something appears for a specific reason, and then that reason disappears, the thing itself should disappear. Arguably, that is a bit as if someone would claim that if you take a freshly baked cake out of the oven, it should turn back into batter, because, after all, the reason why the batter turned into cake in the first place was the heat of the oven, and now that heat has been taken away.
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Ryusenshi
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Re: Why is "Las Meninas" famous ?

Post by Ryusenshi »

The question "why is this thing popular?" has, almost always, the same answer: random chance. Studies have shown that success is essentially random: the worst rarely becomes famous and the best rarely disappears completely, but apart from that, there is little correlation between quality and success. You might as well ask why a particular guy won the lottery but his neighbor didn't.
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Re: Why is "Las Meninas" famous ?

Post by rotting bones »

jcb wrote: Thu Mar 02, 2023 10:55 pm Thus, to me, the painting seems like a ruined sphinx: a relic of an empire that no longer exists.
This sounds close to me. It's a romantic vision of the Spanish court, like a painted version of this song: https://youtu.be/nFlTBJdpy5A
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