Re: Sound Change Quickie Thread
Posted: Sat Sep 28, 2024 9:03 pm
[ˈʁˤʷʁ̩ˤːʁˤɯ(ː)] (seriously, and even for me it's a mouthful)
Note though that the [ʁ̩ˤː] is more open than the [ʁˤʷ] or the [ʁˤ].
[ˈʁˤʷʁ̩ˤːʁˤɯ(ː)] (seriously, and even for me it's a mouthful)
He did. His realization of /l/ is very different from mine, his /t/ is sometimes affricated, and to my ear he barely pronounces preconsonantal /n/. Aside from the question of how to transcribe the rhotic, his transcriptions seem basically accurate.Emily wrote: ↑Sun Sep 29, 2024 2:30 am travis i triple dog dare you to post clear audio recordings of you speaking complete sentences in your natural voice to prove that any of your ridiculous look-at-me transcriptions of how you supposedly pronounce things are anything close to accurate. [ʁˤʷʁ̩ˤːɰ ɰiːʑʁ̩ˤ(ː)] my ass
Because [ɜ] and [ʁ̩ˤ] are not the same thing. The former is a vowel between [ɐ] and [ə], while the latter is a pharyngealised uvular fricative (or more likely an approximant). Consulting data from Ladefoged & Maddieson (1996), it appears that the latter sound is actually closer in articulation to [ɯ], though I suspect it’s quite different both acoustically and articulatorily.
I believe some sources use the latter notation to show slack voice. In my opinion it’s a confusing convention.And while we're at it, what's the exact supposed subtle difference between [p t k] and [b̥ d̥ g̥]?
It's not [ɜ]. [ɜ] is conventional for the NURSE vowel in nonrhotic varieties. [ɝ] has convention to recommend it, but elides that, outside maybe the Inland North, American English /r/ is not retroflex. (Compare it to the realization of Indian English /r/ - it's very different.)
[p t k] are fortis and [b̥ d̥ g̥] are unvoiced lenis. This is common in broad transcription of the Germanic varieties in which the distinction between the T and D series is phonetically complicated, like Zurich German and most varieties of English.And while we're at it, what's the exact supposed subtle difference between [p t k] and [b̥ d̥ g̥]?
Regarding [d̥], one of my professors would use this in narrowly transcribing, say, width (that specific example from my Introduction to Phonetics class in…2010, 2011?).Nortaneous wrote: ↑Sun Sep 29, 2024 6:27 am[p t k] are fortis and [b̥ d̥ g̥] are unvoiced lenis. This is common in broad transcription of the Germanic varieties in which the distinction between the T and D series is phonetically complicated, like Zurich German and most varieties of English.
So why not transcribe it using [ɯ] with some diacritics? Are non lateral approximants serving as nuclei all that different from vowels as to call for their specficic IPA letters?Consulting data from Ladefoged & Maddieson (1996), it appears that the latter sound is actually closer in articulation to [ɯ], though I suspect it’s quite different both acoustically and articulatorily.
So what is exactly lenis in phonetic terms?[p t k] are fortis and [b̥ d̥ g̥] are unvoiced lenis.
Because [ʁ̩ˤ] is much easier to understand. I’m not sure how close it really is to [ɯ] — that was just my best guess as to the nearest common vowel symbol.
From what I understand, it depends on the situation (which is why I generally steer clear of such terms).So what is exactly lenis in phonetic terms?[p t k] are fortis and [b̥ d̥ g̥] are unvoiced lenis.
To me [ʁ̩ˤ] is just confusingBecause [ʁ̩ˤ] is much easier to understand.
It depends! In general, fortis [p t k] are aspirated in most onset positions and preglottalized in some coda positions for most speakers (for others they're released as aspirates), and [b̥ d̥ g̥] are something else that isn't that - in American English, depending on the variety and the context, they can be voiced [b d ɡ], tenuis [p t k], implosive [ɓ ɗ ɠ], lenited [β ɾ ɣ], and I swear I've heard ejective realizations once or twice, and sometimes the lenes can also become aspirates. So in contexts where the precise realizations of the plosives don't matter, it's common to use broad transcriptions that gloss over the details.
Did you not just describe /p t k/ and /b d g/?Nortaneous wrote: ↑Sun Sep 29, 2024 8:02 amIt depends! In general, fortis [p t k] are aspirated in most onset positions and preglottalized in some coda positions for most speakers (for others they're released as aspirates), and [b̥ d̥ g̥] are something else that isn't that - in American English, depending on the variety and the context, they can be voiced [b d ɡ], tenuis [p t k], implosive [ɓ ɗ ɠ], lenited [β ɾ ɣ], and I swear I've heard ejective realizations once or twice, and sometimes the lenes can also become aspirates.
right, it's confusing that IPA doesn't have different bracket notations for different phonetic transcriptions. And I gather that using [b̥ d̥ g̥] implies something about the phonology of the language rather than the realisations themselvesSo in contexts where the precise realizations of the plosives don't matter, it's common to use broad transcriptions that gloss over the details.
This is the claim, yes. But in practice it’s false, and it’s been known to be false for ~40 years. You can consult Ladefoged and Maddieson’s Sounds of the World’s Languages for the details — there is no metric of tongue position which matches up well to the IPA vowel chart, whereas a plot of F1 vs F2 reproduces it almost perfectly.
Change in frequencies is due to change in vocal tract shape, no? Our tongues don't "draw out" perfect triangles or trapezoids when filling up the vowel space, but still lowering the tongue increases F1, and fronting it increases F2.bradrn wrote: ↑Sun Sep 29, 2024 8:57 amThis is the claim, yes. But in practice it’s false, and it’s been known to be false for ~40 years. You can consult Ladefoged and Maddieson’s Sounds of the World’s Languages for the details — there is no metric of tongue position which matches up well to the IPA vowel chart, whereas a plot of F1 vs F2 reproduces it almost perfectly.
(Or, if you don’t feel like digging up that book, read Geoff Lindsey’s article on the same topic.)